Voting regulation is not a power expressed to Congress (except as related to ensuring no bias in race, age, and gender), so his unilateral action has no basis in law. But, when has a basis in law ever applied to him? Lawful grounds such as ‘consent’ has never applied to him before. Why would it now?
Guess there will be some counter lynching then. I seen someone trying to intimidate voters outside, I’m going to shoot them, and walk over their corpse to vote.